clearslate's experience is more what I expected: that the mere act of adding a name doesn't constitute a transfer of property. And this is common, and it's hard to imagine judges seeing it this way (letting TTs take non-elderly retirement funds away for their children's bk because of a common paperwork practice.) NOW if funds were comingled, or the account was actually used by the bk debtor, that might be a whole different situation.
I'm also skeptical that joint always means 50/50. If I have access to funds in my mom's account, then ALL of those funds were available to pay my creditors.
Except that I suspect asking my mom to put me on her account so I can help her with her finances, and then draining the account of HER funds to pay MY creditors might actually be seen as a crime: some sort of fraud or theft. If mom wanted to help me pay my creditors, I'd be damned sure that HER signature was on the check.
I do know that access to funds/property is not the same as it being legal to appropriate it for my own use.
And I find it hard to believe that judges/courts would allow the hypertechnical to take precedence over fairness and intent with respect to the savings of the elderly.
I'm also skeptical that joint always means 50/50. If I have access to funds in my mom's account, then ALL of those funds were available to pay my creditors.
Except that I suspect asking my mom to put me on her account so I can help her with her finances, and then draining the account of HER funds to pay MY creditors might actually be seen as a crime: some sort of fraud or theft. If mom wanted to help me pay my creditors, I'd be damned sure that HER signature was on the check.
I do know that access to funds/property is not the same as it being legal to appropriate it for my own use.
And I find it hard to believe that judges/courts would allow the hypertechnical to take precedence over fairness and intent with respect to the savings of the elderly.
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