I am working with a lender who is including my current home as we are trying to apply for a FHA on a new home. As you guessed it, because of my current home I am unable to get the full FHA loan amount for the second. My current home is a "pay-n-stay" scenario.
Question is this - why would they be using my home when it was IIB and no reaffirmation was signed? Yes my name is on the title but it was never reaffirmed and per my BK attorney, I have no finanical obligation.
Some people say I can surrender it but I dont think its that easy. To me, surrending means short sale and short sale means I need to wait out 3 years before re-applying.
So tell me, if my home was IIB via CH7 and no reaffirmation was signed, can the underwriter still use my monthly payments which is obviously killing my debt-to-income-ratio.
Thanks all!
Question is this - why would they be using my home when it was IIB and no reaffirmation was signed? Yes my name is on the title but it was never reaffirmed and per my BK attorney, I have no finanical obligation.
Some people say I can surrender it but I dont think its that easy. To me, surrending means short sale and short sale means I need to wait out 3 years before re-applying.
So tell me, if my home was IIB via CH7 and no reaffirmation was signed, can the underwriter still use my monthly payments which is obviously killing my debt-to-income-ratio.
Thanks all!
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