Hi,
I have read several posts where it says that Schedule I income is supposed to be calculated based upon the past 6 months of income, just like the means test. However, in the following book at this url, it seems to say that Schedule I income is based upon what you are currently making and expect to be making in the future:
http://books.google.com/books?id=dv0...income&f=false
Does anyone have a reference to prove this one way or the other? I am in this situation since I am scheduled to be laid off Oct. 31. I pass the Means test, but my car payment might not be allowed on the schedule I which might cause me to fail the I-J test if I have to use my last 6 months income. But if it's based on unemployment (which I'll be earning), then I'll pass the I-J test with flying colors.
Thank you for your time.
I have read several posts where it says that Schedule I income is supposed to be calculated based upon the past 6 months of income, just like the means test. However, in the following book at this url, it seems to say that Schedule I income is based upon what you are currently making and expect to be making in the future:
http://books.google.com/books?id=dv0...income&f=false
Does anyone have a reference to prove this one way or the other? I am in this situation since I am scheduled to be laid off Oct. 31. I pass the Means test, but my car payment might not be allowed on the schedule I which might cause me to fail the I-J test if I have to use my last 6 months income. But if it's based on unemployment (which I'll be earning), then I'll pass the I-J test with flying colors.
Thank you for your time.
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