. . and didn't pay back the loan.
We purchased a boat on a secured loan in 2005. A few months later we received clear title for it. We kept the boat and continued to make our payments on time for a little over two years before we got into financial trouble and were forced to sell the boat. Having clear title in hand, we conveyed it directly to the buyer and used the proceeds to pay other debt. For 3 more years we continued to faithfully pay on the original loan in an effort to pay it down and keep our credit from tanking.
Jump to today: We stopped paying on the loan just 3 months ago and the lender is now seeking to repossess the boat. A little over a week ago, a repossessor knocked on our door seeking the vehicle and we politely advised him that the bank did not have the title, and likewise, no right to repossess. We followed up with a letter to their main office advising them to check with the lender on that point and have not heard from them since.
Now I have searched high and low on the internet for a concrete answer to the question of whether the lender really can repo the vehicle, and I have come up with some case law that suggests that at least in some states they might. In Oregon however, where we live, there is a section of the statutes that states:
"
To me, this is pretty cut and dried. No title notation, no security interest, no repo rights - even though they do actually have a UCC Ch79 lien filed on the boat with the state. Title has transferred to the new owner without encumberance.
It is worth noting that Oregon limits the time period, which we are long past, within which a lender may perfect a lien on the title, so they can't go back and add it retroactively.
So the question is, are we looking at a sh--storm of trouble on this one with our pending Ch 7 filing, or is the bank simply SOL?
We purchased a boat on a secured loan in 2005. A few months later we received clear title for it. We kept the boat and continued to make our payments on time for a little over two years before we got into financial trouble and were forced to sell the boat. Having clear title in hand, we conveyed it directly to the buyer and used the proceeds to pay other debt. For 3 more years we continued to faithfully pay on the original loan in an effort to pay it down and keep our credit from tanking.
Jump to today: We stopped paying on the loan just 3 months ago and the lender is now seeking to repossess the boat. A little over a week ago, a repossessor knocked on our door seeking the vehicle and we politely advised him that the bank did not have the title, and likewise, no right to repossess. We followed up with a letter to their main office advising them to check with the lender on that point and have not heard from them since.
Now I have searched high and low on the internet for a concrete answer to the question of whether the lender really can repo the vehicle, and I have come up with some case law that suggests that at least in some states they might. In Oregon however, where we live, there is a section of the statutes that states:
". . the exclusive means of perfecting a security interest in a boat, boathouse or floating home covered by a certificate of title is by application for and notation of the security interest on the certificate of title in accordance with the provisions of ORS 830.720, 830.740 to 830.755, 830.785, 830.810, 830.850 and 830.855.
To me, this is pretty cut and dried. No title notation, no security interest, no repo rights - even though they do actually have a UCC Ch79 lien filed on the boat with the state. Title has transferred to the new owner without encumberance.
It is worth noting that Oregon limits the time period, which we are long past, within which a lender may perfect a lien on the title, so they can't go back and add it retroactively.
So the question is, are we looking at a sh--storm of trouble on this one with our pending Ch 7 filing, or is the bank simply SOL?
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