A friend of mine who's contemplating BK (and who's been picking my brain), asked me a question that I wasn't sure how to answer......so I thought I'd put it out here.
He owns some raw land (totally undeveloped - out in the middle of nowhere)....he's been making payments on it, but if he could sell it for the mortgage amount (around $50k), he might be able to avoid BK because of the elimination of the monthly payment.
His brother in law is willing to buy it from him for the amount of the note - the land itself is probably worth appraisal wise between 45K and 55k. If he sells to his BIL - for obviously market value, and then winds up having to file bk later - is this going to be looked at as preferential?
Or would it be ok because he gained nothing from the sale, and the entire sale price went to satisfying the underlying secured debt on the asset?
He owns some raw land (totally undeveloped - out in the middle of nowhere)....he's been making payments on it, but if he could sell it for the mortgage amount (around $50k), he might be able to avoid BK because of the elimination of the monthly payment.
His brother in law is willing to buy it from him for the amount of the note - the land itself is probably worth appraisal wise between 45K and 55k. If he sells to his BIL - for obviously market value, and then winds up having to file bk later - is this going to be looked at as preferential?
Or would it be ok because he gained nothing from the sale, and the entire sale price went to satisfying the underlying secured debt on the asset?
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