I joined this forum for research on a paper I am writing for class on the topic of consumer credit and this forum has been a huge eye opener.
One of the things that I find most confusing is the "discharged debt" issue. As I understand it, once debt is discharged, the trustee can still spend as much time as he wants liquidating "assets" of the debtor to pay creditors.
This seems to be a contradiction in terms. If the debtors debt is formally discharged, I thought that meant that their obligation to pay their debt has been nullified, because they qualified for bankruptcy.
However, if their remaining assets can then be liquidated to pay their debts on an open ended basis, they are in effect paying at least part of their debt, so how is that considered to be a discharge?
My assumption is that if an individual qualifies for Chapter 7, it is because they truly can't afford to pay their debts. Otherwise, they would be moved to a Chapter 13....or disqualified to file altogether.
If they truly can't afford to pay their debt, how does selling their only assets that are non-exempt by often very draconian exemption rules (such as a car they need for work, or their home that has a current mortgage) giving them a "fresh start"?
I do understand the exemption issue in terms of homestead allowance, but it seems at times that homes are sold ( or at least attmpted to be sold) by the trustee even if the end amount is very small in comparison to debt owed.
This leaves the debtor homeless, with very little if any money to buy another car, or find adequate housing.
Where is the fresh sart in all of that?
Last but not least, it seems that the debtor should be told upon filing that their house and or car can be up for grabs in order that they can decide if bankruptcy would be a worse alternative and choose to not file.
It seems that people don' t find that out until later in the game.
If I am incorrect in any of my understandings I would appreciate some clarification,
Thanks in advance for any info that can be supplied.
One of the things that I find most confusing is the "discharged debt" issue. As I understand it, once debt is discharged, the trustee can still spend as much time as he wants liquidating "assets" of the debtor to pay creditors.
This seems to be a contradiction in terms. If the debtors debt is formally discharged, I thought that meant that their obligation to pay their debt has been nullified, because they qualified for bankruptcy.
However, if their remaining assets can then be liquidated to pay their debts on an open ended basis, they are in effect paying at least part of their debt, so how is that considered to be a discharge?
My assumption is that if an individual qualifies for Chapter 7, it is because they truly can't afford to pay their debts. Otherwise, they would be moved to a Chapter 13....or disqualified to file altogether.
If they truly can't afford to pay their debt, how does selling their only assets that are non-exempt by often very draconian exemption rules (such as a car they need for work, or their home that has a current mortgage) giving them a "fresh start"?
I do understand the exemption issue in terms of homestead allowance, but it seems at times that homes are sold ( or at least attmpted to be sold) by the trustee even if the end amount is very small in comparison to debt owed.
This leaves the debtor homeless, with very little if any money to buy another car, or find adequate housing.
Where is the fresh sart in all of that?
Last but not least, it seems that the debtor should be told upon filing that their house and or car can be up for grabs in order that they can decide if bankruptcy would be a worse alternative and choose to not file.
It seems that people don' t find that out until later in the game.
If I am incorrect in any of my understandings I would appreciate some clarification,
Thanks in advance for any info that can be supplied.
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