In a recent posting to this forum, the poster claimed to have been able to recover garnished wages for a period of 90 days prior to filing for bankruptcy. My understanding is that the automatic stay is effective on the date of filing and not before.
I have no reason to believe the poster was being less than honest, but this just baffles me. Can someone explain how this is possible?
I have no reason to believe the poster was being less than honest, but this just baffles me. Can someone explain how this is possible?
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