So I go in to see my lawyer tomorrow, adjust my budget and sign all my paperwork.
I just came across an afadavit I signed months ago.
I was on title to my mother's home that she bought in 2002 when I was 20. The proceeds to buy this new property came from the sale of a house she owned with my grandfather.
My mother is a drug addict and previously sold a home she inherited from my grandmother and blew through the cash in less than a year. Putting me on title was to prevent that from happening and incase anything should happen to her or my grandfather. The title transfer should have been easy.
In 2006 she decided she wanted to move and I refused to transfer the title over to her for months so she could do this because I knew she's blow through the profits again. After months of harassment and being accused of being a "bad, greedy daughter" I finally agreed under the stipulation that she pay me back for some debts she owed me and give me a few thousand dollars from her sale of the house so I could pay down some of my credit cards because I was never going to see anything of it anyway.
She did a quick claim with the deed and I signed title over to her for no profit.
On her closing escrow paper work, it just shows me as a misc. payee on the closing.
I have a copy of the check, as well as record of the transfer of the deed. The deed from her sale of the house and her closing paperwork (it's a miracle I was able to get this) and my bank statement showing where the money I received went to.
I never knew this would affect a bankruptcy now but I wanted to ask, what's the likelyhood they will take issue with the property?
My lawyer told me they can sue my mother for my proceeds (which they will never get because it's long gone now) but can they sue me for the proceeds?
I did have close to 10k of debt in 2006. Most of the credit card debt was incured between 2006 and present day though..
Many thanks for any replies!
I just came across an afadavit I signed months ago.
I was on title to my mother's home that she bought in 2002 when I was 20. The proceeds to buy this new property came from the sale of a house she owned with my grandfather.
My mother is a drug addict and previously sold a home she inherited from my grandmother and blew through the cash in less than a year. Putting me on title was to prevent that from happening and incase anything should happen to her or my grandfather. The title transfer should have been easy.
In 2006 she decided she wanted to move and I refused to transfer the title over to her for months so she could do this because I knew she's blow through the profits again. After months of harassment and being accused of being a "bad, greedy daughter" I finally agreed under the stipulation that she pay me back for some debts she owed me and give me a few thousand dollars from her sale of the house so I could pay down some of my credit cards because I was never going to see anything of it anyway.
She did a quick claim with the deed and I signed title over to her for no profit.
On her closing escrow paper work, it just shows me as a misc. payee on the closing.
I have a copy of the check, as well as record of the transfer of the deed. The deed from her sale of the house and her closing paperwork (it's a miracle I was able to get this) and my bank statement showing where the money I received went to.
I never knew this would affect a bankruptcy now but I wanted to ask, what's the likelyhood they will take issue with the property?
My lawyer told me they can sue my mother for my proceeds (which they will never get because it's long gone now) but can they sue me for the proceeds?
I did have close to 10k of debt in 2006. Most of the credit card debt was incured between 2006 and present day though..
Many thanks for any replies!