I have a checking account with US Bank. Attached to that account, I have both a line of credit, which has been maxed out at $800+ for months (I pay about $15-$20 a month back to it), and a checking advance, which allows me to advance $500 and then pay back $550 the next time I have a direct deposit. Basically a mini-payday loan. You guessed it, I've gotten into the trap of borrowing the $500 every payday immediately after they've taken the $550 back out of my checking account to pay it back.
So my question is....I plan to switch my direct deposit elsewhere (after my next check goes in this Friday) and include these debts in the bk. I'm guessing that to eliminate a presumption of abuse, I should either 1) NOT borrow the $500 back again this Friday, which really puts me in a lurch, or 2) Go ahead and borrow it but stop the direct deposit and wait a couple months to file.
I know the "right" thing to do would be to stop borrowing against this since I know I'm filing, although living without that $500 would be tough. And in this case, even though I last borrowed against it two weeks ago, the presumption of abuse would be gone since I've paid it off, correct? Even though I still have the separate $800 line of credit in the bk.
I'm confused....
So my question is....I plan to switch my direct deposit elsewhere (after my next check goes in this Friday) and include these debts in the bk. I'm guessing that to eliminate a presumption of abuse, I should either 1) NOT borrow the $500 back again this Friday, which really puts me in a lurch, or 2) Go ahead and borrow it but stop the direct deposit and wait a couple months to file.
I know the "right" thing to do would be to stop borrowing against this since I know I'm filing, although living without that $500 would be tough. And in this case, even though I last borrowed against it two weeks ago, the presumption of abuse would be gone since I've paid it off, correct? Even though I still have the separate $800 line of credit in the bk.
I'm confused....
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