As most of you know, I was behind on my 2nd mortgage and paid the past due amounts owed on cross coll. loans to that bank before they started to foreclose on my home. The total payment was over $700 (I used money set aside to pay the atty).
When the debt was incurred, it was unsecured, but the cross coll. clause makes it secured through the 2nd mortgage. Would this be considered a preferential payment, would this seem like fraud to a Trustee or would I have to supply them with a copy of the mortgage agreement to prove the cross coll. clause exists?
When the debt was incurred, it was unsecured, but the cross coll. clause makes it secured through the 2nd mortgage. Would this be considered a preferential payment, would this seem like fraud to a Trustee or would I have to supply them with a copy of the mortgage agreement to prove the cross coll. clause exists?
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