Originally posted by JollyGG
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Your example is what I was thinking about because he turned borrowed money into an asset, then the CC wanted to object to discharge at the same time.
The reason that happened the way it did, I am pretty sure was due to the time it happened & the time of filing.
If someone would do that for only about 3 or 4 hundred dollars then nothing would have ever happened because it was under the 600 for 90 days. If you had swiped the card instead of doing the 0%transfer then none of that would ever happened & it is the same exact amount.
Thank God I have some cards with 0% on purchases!
I have one thing like that where I took a cash advance to pay back my cousin for downpayment on the hospital, this will be going back 8 months to a year by the time I get there & have been paying on that advance, & I know they can go back that far. I am not worried about them going to him for the money however, because I can prove that the money went to the hospital & I am not hiding money through him. If I had it to do over again, I may have payed him back slower or better yet, had someone bring me my own credit card to give the hospital the downpayment.
I had no idea until now, you could even list a relative as a creditor, that would have been the other option. If trustee goes after my cousin for the 2K, then I will be owing him 2K again plus I have already payed back about 300 to that advance. This is the same area where preferential & objection can get screwy, that is if it is over 3,000 & between the 0-6 months. It is so stupid & twisted.
I am not going to lose sleep over this stuff, cross that bridge when I get there. These are areas where I don't really care if I have to pay some of it back as long as I don't get stuck double paying.
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