Hi everyone,
We surrendered our house in our 13, and the HOA is foreclosing ahead of the bank for arrears owed to them. This is GOOD news, as the bank is dragging its feet. However, we received the civil action summons from the court for the HOA's filing, and have a concern with one of the sections that states (paraphrased):
Plaintiff is entitled to a reasonable rental for the Lot, from the date of recording of Plaintiff's Claim of Lien, if Plaintiff's Claim of Lien is foreclosed...
The lien was recorded in July, and we do NOT rent the house. It is vacant, although the summons is against me as well as "unknown tenant".
The Big Question: Can they really collect rent from me for a house that hasn't been rented out for a time period in which they did not own the house? This seems ridiculous to me, and I hope I'm just being dense.
Many thanks for your input.
**EDIT** I thought more about this, and I think this might be boilerplate for those cases where the HOA liens and subsequently forecloses on owner occupied houses. They're essentially stating that we would owe them back rent from the date of lien if they are successful in foreclosure. Thoughts?
We surrendered our house in our 13, and the HOA is foreclosing ahead of the bank for arrears owed to them. This is GOOD news, as the bank is dragging its feet. However, we received the civil action summons from the court for the HOA's filing, and have a concern with one of the sections that states (paraphrased):
Plaintiff is entitled to a reasonable rental for the Lot, from the date of recording of Plaintiff's Claim of Lien, if Plaintiff's Claim of Lien is foreclosed...
The lien was recorded in July, and we do NOT rent the house. It is vacant, although the summons is against me as well as "unknown tenant".
The Big Question: Can they really collect rent from me for a house that hasn't been rented out for a time period in which they did not own the house? This seems ridiculous to me, and I hope I'm just being dense.
Many thanks for your input.
**EDIT** I thought more about this, and I think this might be boilerplate for those cases where the HOA liens and subsequently forecloses on owner occupied houses. They're essentially stating that we would owe them back rent from the date of lien if they are successful in foreclosure. Thoughts?
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