Originally posted by aquavir
View Post
The post I was replying to seemed to imply there was some difference between the 1st and 2nd within the BK process, and there simply is not.
The strategy of paying 1st and not 2nd in order to force a cheap settlement of the second - which I am attempting at present - is made possible through the combination of the discharge and low valuation. The latter makes it so the note on the 2nd is effectively worthless, and the former removes the incentive for its holder to foreclose (since they can no longer pursue the deficiency). That's why it has a good chance of working. However, if the holder of both notes is the same bank, then the low valuation does not come into play in the same way - while they still cannot pursue a deficiency, they WILL recover some funds by foreclosing.
Comment