PNC Bank recently purchased National City Mortgage (who holds my 1st mortgage) and National City Bank (who holds my 2nd mortgage).
The civil summons/foreclosure docs were delivered to me via a sheriff.
The 1st mortgage company is filing a complaint against me, my ex, and National City Bank (the 2nd).
Every time I have spoken to National City Bank (2nd), they have advised me that the 2nd was charged off, but that we could still negotiate a short-sale. I assume this means they have not yet sold the loan to a collection agency.
The foreclosure docs not only name the 2nd as one of the defendants, but later state, "Plaintiff says that the defendant, PNC Bank, National Association successor by merger to National City Bank, may claim an interest in the above described property by virtue of a mortgage filed against ___ and ___ of said county, which is believed to be paid off, however, not released of record."
Can someone interpret the quote? I believe the 1st is trying to show that the 2nd is paid off, but it is not. The 1st knows this, as I have communicated it with them several times. Additionally, they are owned by the same bank!
Is something fishy happening, or is this normal verbiage when there is a 2nd piggyback loan?
The civil summons/foreclosure docs were delivered to me via a sheriff.
The 1st mortgage company is filing a complaint against me, my ex, and National City Bank (the 2nd).
Every time I have spoken to National City Bank (2nd), they have advised me that the 2nd was charged off, but that we could still negotiate a short-sale. I assume this means they have not yet sold the loan to a collection agency.
The foreclosure docs not only name the 2nd as one of the defendants, but later state, "Plaintiff says that the defendant, PNC Bank, National Association successor by merger to National City Bank, may claim an interest in the above described property by virtue of a mortgage filed against ___ and ___ of said county, which is believed to be paid off, however, not released of record."
Can someone interpret the quote? I believe the 1st is trying to show that the 2nd is paid off, but it is not. The 1st knows this, as I have communicated it with them several times. Additionally, they are owned by the same bank!
Is something fishy happening, or is this normal verbiage when there is a 2nd piggyback loan?
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