My brother-in-law was out of their house because GMAC issue a foreclosure without their consent and I do not think they undergo the California foreclosure process, is this legal? Thanks in advanced..
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File BK7: Jan 4, 2010
Reschedule 341: Mar 16 2010
Discharged: Apr 22 2010
Closed: May 6, 2010
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What do you mean "without the owner's consent?" The bank doesn't need the owner's permission to foreclose. Can you give more details? I don't think anyone can tell you if what they did is legal without knowing what they did. -
If one does not make payments on their mortgage, the bank can foreclose - it does not need any permission to do that as the borrower is in default, not the bank. A contract was signed indicating what occurs if payments are not made on the mortgage and signed by both parties. You will need to list further information about this matter._________________________________________
Filed 5 Year Chapter 13: April 2002
Early Buy-Out: April 2006
Discharge: August 2006
"A credit card is a snake in your pocket"Comment
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Remember folks it's not your house until you pay it all off. So yes a bank can foreclose without your permission.Filed: 6-7-2010 341: 7-15-2010 DISCHARGED: 9/17/2010
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Agree, what's being said here but at least have the homeowner undergo the normal foreclosure process i.e. loan mods, NOD, NOI...File BK7: Jan 4, 2010
Reschedule 341: Mar 16 2010
Discharged: Apr 22 2010
Closed: May 6, 2010Comment
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