Mishandling of my mortgage modification has me seeking information here. I have read on some threads that others have been assured that if a mod package was offered by the bank and you accept it and submit it with the stipulated documents, that the lender then can not back out.
My loan is not a fannie or freddie. Is there actually any regulation that says they have to complete the mod? BofA kept assuring me that the mod was taking place, even with them selling the note while the mod was being processed.
I called and was assured NUMEROUS times that the mod was going into effect.
Even after Litton had taken ownership of the note, BofA said the modified note would be getting to Litton. It was also, "Litton will honor this mod even if we have not properly handled it".
Litton says they have no evidence that BofA was processing the mod. Even though I have faxed in copies of the notarized agreement.
Oh, and Litton SAYS that about having no evidence of the mod. THEN WHY, on the Notice of Default, is the date of the 'NOTE' shown to be a particular date from 2009? Strangest clerical error to MIRACULOUSLY use the EXACT date of the MODIFICATION agreement. (They sent that letter before I faxed copies of the mod agreement to their research department.)
Meanwhile a BofA supervisor has expressed the notion that they have done nothing wrong. Other BofA employees have expressed surprise that this was allowed to happen. One said it appeared to be a mistake.
Neither lender EVER sent any notice to me that the modification was not being implemented.
I have an attorney. We are trying to determine if there is any legality to this. (The lawyer, of course is using his sources, I'm checking here.) I know others on other threads have been assured by their lawyers that this does not happen. Does anyone know any regulation that BofA & Litton are not complying with?
It just does not feel right to have a lender able to just ignore processing of a package they offered to modify a loan.
Disgusted SoCalGal
My loan is not a fannie or freddie. Is there actually any regulation that says they have to complete the mod? BofA kept assuring me that the mod was taking place, even with them selling the note while the mod was being processed.
I called and was assured NUMEROUS times that the mod was going into effect.
Even after Litton had taken ownership of the note, BofA said the modified note would be getting to Litton. It was also, "Litton will honor this mod even if we have not properly handled it".
Litton says they have no evidence that BofA was processing the mod. Even though I have faxed in copies of the notarized agreement.
Oh, and Litton SAYS that about having no evidence of the mod. THEN WHY, on the Notice of Default, is the date of the 'NOTE' shown to be a particular date from 2009? Strangest clerical error to MIRACULOUSLY use the EXACT date of the MODIFICATION agreement. (They sent that letter before I faxed copies of the mod agreement to their research department.)
Meanwhile a BofA supervisor has expressed the notion that they have done nothing wrong. Other BofA employees have expressed surprise that this was allowed to happen. One said it appeared to be a mistake.
Neither lender EVER sent any notice to me that the modification was not being implemented.
I have an attorney. We are trying to determine if there is any legality to this. (The lawyer, of course is using his sources, I'm checking here.) I know others on other threads have been assured by their lawyers that this does not happen. Does anyone know any regulation that BofA & Litton are not complying with?
It just does not feel right to have a lender able to just ignore processing of a package they offered to modify a loan.
Disgusted SoCalGal
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