Hi there,
I was just thinking, and I may be WAY off, but thought I would ask. As some of you may have read in other threads, I have two cars in my CH7 filing. One was intended to be surrendered, one was to be reaffirmed.
Because of some possible lien perfection issues, the trustee MAY get to keep/sell one or both of these cars (I wont go into all the details again here...read my other posts). Both cars are upside down...
BUT, if the trustee somehow does deem these to be UNSECURED assets (due to the lien issues), and then sells them....does that mean I would be entitled to some sort of auto exemption? I didnt claim this of course because there was no equity in either car and they were secured. But I was thinking that if the TRUSTEE thinks they are unsecured and have value, would that mean that in essence it is as if I own these outright and the lender would just have to get their share AFTER exemptions like anyone else?
Or am I way off base?
Thanks.
I was just thinking, and I may be WAY off, but thought I would ask. As some of you may have read in other threads, I have two cars in my CH7 filing. One was intended to be surrendered, one was to be reaffirmed.
Because of some possible lien perfection issues, the trustee MAY get to keep/sell one or both of these cars (I wont go into all the details again here...read my other posts). Both cars are upside down...
BUT, if the trustee somehow does deem these to be UNSECURED assets (due to the lien issues), and then sells them....does that mean I would be entitled to some sort of auto exemption? I didnt claim this of course because there was no equity in either car and they were secured. But I was thinking that if the TRUSTEE thinks they are unsecured and have value, would that mean that in essence it is as if I own these outright and the lender would just have to get their share AFTER exemptions like anyone else?
Or am I way off base?
Thanks.
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