posted on another thread but didn't want to hijack, so reposting here:
All my home calls go straight to GV, which tells callers they have reached GV... seems obvious to me that consent is implied when they leave the message... any reason to think it's not? in other words, is any message left on a recording fair game? And what about cell phone messages? My pal Marshall (I think he's from Chase, but not really sure) keeps calling my cell and leaving messages without id'ing who he is calling for... is this a violation? I'd love to scare up some cash to finally pay a lawyer....
All my home calls go straight to GV, which tells callers they have reached GV... seems obvious to me that consent is implied when they leave the message... any reason to think it's not? in other words, is any message left on a recording fair game? And what about cell phone messages? My pal Marshall (I think he's from Chase, but not really sure) keeps calling my cell and leaving messages without id'ing who he is calling for... is this a violation? I'd love to scare up some cash to finally pay a lawyer....
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