I recently got a scary 15-page document from Mann Bracken detailing their arbitration case/demand to me in a complex enough way that an intelligent person can't tell what the hell is going on. Using the search, as usual I got lots of helpful info from this web site and basically concluded that an arbitration demand has no real coercive power because ultimately they have to sue in court anyway to get an enforceable judgment. The arbitration info is ambiguous enough, however, to leave a little doubt as to where you stand, so here's one more bit of info:
Mann Bracken has several of my accounts and my cease and desist letters, so when I got the arbitration demand I was ready either to get scared that they had this option, or to sue the pants off them CPO-style. I checked my records, and the arbitration offer is for the one account I accidentally neglected to tell them to cease and desist on. They've sent me no arbitration crap relating to any other of the accounts they have. It appears then, in terms of the FDCPA, that arbitration offers are just more garden variety dunning we're entitled to be free of if we demand it, and that collectors know that. Am I right?
Mann Bracken has several of my accounts and my cease and desist letters, so when I got the arbitration demand I was ready either to get scared that they had this option, or to sue the pants off them CPO-style. I checked my records, and the arbitration offer is for the one account I accidentally neglected to tell them to cease and desist on. They've sent me no arbitration crap relating to any other of the accounts they have. It appears then, in terms of the FDCPA, that arbitration offers are just more garden variety dunning we're entitled to be free of if we demand it, and that collectors know that. Am I right?
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