I am filing Chpt 7.
I have other threads/questions up here explaining this is more detail but short story for purposes of specific questions here is:
- I have over 120k in unsecured debt that I have stopped paying (I have basically no $$ and no job, just selling possessions to stay alive). Those debts are escalating from collections into lawsuits etc.
- Foreclosure has already been filed on my house, about 1 month ago.
- I owe 75k on my mortgage, but have equity in the house since in theory if spruced up the house *could* sell for $180-220k. As is it *could* sell for around 160k. Of course the market is so bad, and with foreclosure started, I can't get anything for it (and the "investor" vultures are already circling).
- What I want the Chpt 7 to do is to have the trustee take my house, sell it, pay off the mortgage, give me my homestead exemption ($20k), use the rest to settle all my other debts and wipe them out if not paid etc so I can start my life over.
- I have a lawyer who is doing my Chpt 7 filing. We "discussed" my case (long story I think he doesn't give 2 shits but I am stuck with him). His office prepared the Chpt 7 filing papers for me to sign. I am going over that now. I see much that is missing or wrong that is easy for me to catch and have them correct before I sign it. However I see 2 major things relating to my house that seem wrong to me but I am not a bankruptcy lawyer so maybe I just don't understand. I'd appreciate some insight into this before I go back in to discuss this and risk being "handled" (ie: told something wrong mistakenly or even on purpose just to get me to sign the forms as is).
(1) On the first page of the form, there is a section called "Statistical/Administration Information". Inside there the box next to "Debtor estimates that funds will be available for distribution to unsecured creditors" is NOT checked. The box next to "Debtor estimates that, after any exempt property is excluded and administrative expenses paid, there will be no funds available for distribution to unsecured creditors" IS CHECKED. Yet I do NOT agree with this. Why would this be filled out this way?? If the trustee takes and sells my house, he should have plenty left over to take a cut, give me my exemption, pay off the mortgage, then give something to my creditors. Any explanations??? I have heard that giving a trustee an asset basically gives him a license to "burn through it" and nothing will be left of it, but jesus christ we are talking about say $75,000 here. I'm not going to act like I EXPECT all of that to be eaten up as "administrative costs". Or what am I not understanding??
(2) About 20 pages in there is a section called "CHPT 7 INDIVIDUAL DEBTOR'S STATEMENT OF INTENTION". Part A has a section for "property #1". This is referred to as "debts secured by property of the estate". It lists my house there. Ok so far. Then there is a question of "Property will be" with 2 choices - one being "Surrendered" and the other being "Retained".
Beneath that it is says "If retaining the property, I intend to (Check at least one): Redeem the property, Reaffirm the debt, or Other/Explain".
Then beneath that it has a section for "Property is (check one)" either "Claimed as exempt" or "Not claimed as Exempt".
Knowing my situation, logic tells me that all of this should be filled out as "PROPERTY WILL BE SURRENDERED", the "if retaining..." part would be not filled out, and the "Property is" part should have "Claimed as Exempt" (in order to get my homestead exemption for it).
In other words, go ahead and take the house Mr. Trustee, sell it, give me my exemption, settle whatever debts you can, clear out the rest etc.
Yet amazingly...and confoundingly to me, the option filled out is PROPERTY WILL BE RETAINED. And the corresponding section for "if retaining the property" HAS NOTHING FILLED OUT. But at least the part for "Property is EXEMPT" is checked.
Can anyone explain to me for my situation HOW this area should be filled out - and what if any explanation could there be for having the lawyer fill it out the way he did?? (Or should I say, his secretary filled it out the way she did??)
Thanks very much for any useful replies. As I stated in a different thread I am stuck with a lawyer who is handling my case for 1/2 price and realized from our initial meeting that I will have to go over everything he says/does as thoroughly as possible to protect my own interests.
I have other threads/questions up here explaining this is more detail but short story for purposes of specific questions here is:
- I have over 120k in unsecured debt that I have stopped paying (I have basically no $$ and no job, just selling possessions to stay alive). Those debts are escalating from collections into lawsuits etc.
- Foreclosure has already been filed on my house, about 1 month ago.
- I owe 75k on my mortgage, but have equity in the house since in theory if spruced up the house *could* sell for $180-220k. As is it *could* sell for around 160k. Of course the market is so bad, and with foreclosure started, I can't get anything for it (and the "investor" vultures are already circling).
- What I want the Chpt 7 to do is to have the trustee take my house, sell it, pay off the mortgage, give me my homestead exemption ($20k), use the rest to settle all my other debts and wipe them out if not paid etc so I can start my life over.
- I have a lawyer who is doing my Chpt 7 filing. We "discussed" my case (long story I think he doesn't give 2 shits but I am stuck with him). His office prepared the Chpt 7 filing papers for me to sign. I am going over that now. I see much that is missing or wrong that is easy for me to catch and have them correct before I sign it. However I see 2 major things relating to my house that seem wrong to me but I am not a bankruptcy lawyer so maybe I just don't understand. I'd appreciate some insight into this before I go back in to discuss this and risk being "handled" (ie: told something wrong mistakenly or even on purpose just to get me to sign the forms as is).
(1) On the first page of the form, there is a section called "Statistical/Administration Information". Inside there the box next to "Debtor estimates that funds will be available for distribution to unsecured creditors" is NOT checked. The box next to "Debtor estimates that, after any exempt property is excluded and administrative expenses paid, there will be no funds available for distribution to unsecured creditors" IS CHECKED. Yet I do NOT agree with this. Why would this be filled out this way?? If the trustee takes and sells my house, he should have plenty left over to take a cut, give me my exemption, pay off the mortgage, then give something to my creditors. Any explanations??? I have heard that giving a trustee an asset basically gives him a license to "burn through it" and nothing will be left of it, but jesus christ we are talking about say $75,000 here. I'm not going to act like I EXPECT all of that to be eaten up as "administrative costs". Or what am I not understanding??
(2) About 20 pages in there is a section called "CHPT 7 INDIVIDUAL DEBTOR'S STATEMENT OF INTENTION". Part A has a section for "property #1". This is referred to as "debts secured by property of the estate". It lists my house there. Ok so far. Then there is a question of "Property will be" with 2 choices - one being "Surrendered" and the other being "Retained".
Beneath that it is says "If retaining the property, I intend to (Check at least one): Redeem the property, Reaffirm the debt, or Other/Explain".
Then beneath that it has a section for "Property is (check one)" either "Claimed as exempt" or "Not claimed as Exempt".
Knowing my situation, logic tells me that all of this should be filled out as "PROPERTY WILL BE SURRENDERED", the "if retaining..." part would be not filled out, and the "Property is" part should have "Claimed as Exempt" (in order to get my homestead exemption for it).
In other words, go ahead and take the house Mr. Trustee, sell it, give me my exemption, settle whatever debts you can, clear out the rest etc.
Yet amazingly...and confoundingly to me, the option filled out is PROPERTY WILL BE RETAINED. And the corresponding section for "if retaining the property" HAS NOTHING FILLED OUT. But at least the part for "Property is EXEMPT" is checked.
Can anyone explain to me for my situation HOW this area should be filled out - and what if any explanation could there be for having the lawyer fill it out the way he did?? (Or should I say, his secretary filled it out the way she did??)
Thanks very much for any useful replies. As I stated in a different thread I am stuck with a lawyer who is handling my case for 1/2 price and realized from our initial meeting that I will have to go over everything he says/does as thoroughly as possible to protect my own interests.
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