So today was the deadline to have all our paperwork turned in to the BA to fight the presumption of abuse. The attorney is still not worried at all. I logged on to Pacer to see if anything had been filed yet and there is a receipt for a relief from automatic stay payment of $150 and papers where American Honda Finance Company has filed for relief from automatic stay (we already surrendered the vehicles) and also says:
Because AHFC is not receiving any payments... there is no equity... vehicle has been recovered... AHFC's interest is not adequately protected entitling AHFC to relief from the automatic stay for cause, including the lack of adequate protection of its interest in the vehicle, pursuant to Section 362(d)(1).
wherefore, AHFC moves the court for an Order granting AHFC relief... authorizing AHFC to sell the recovered vehicle... AHFC also requests a period of 120 days in which to file a proof of claim for any deficiency balance and asserts that cause exists sufficient to wave the requirement of Bankruptcy Rule 4001(a)(3) therefore allowing an Order to be effective upon the Court's signature."
Okay... so is this just procedure? Are they just basically saying they plan to sell the vehicles and make us liable for the amount left and trying to make it nondischargable? we were told we'd be an asset case, but then all this crap happened with the presumption of abuse, so I don't know what is going on now.
Because AHFC is not receiving any payments... there is no equity... vehicle has been recovered... AHFC's interest is not adequately protected entitling AHFC to relief from the automatic stay for cause, including the lack of adequate protection of its interest in the vehicle, pursuant to Section 362(d)(1).
wherefore, AHFC moves the court for an Order granting AHFC relief... authorizing AHFC to sell the recovered vehicle... AHFC also requests a period of 120 days in which to file a proof of claim for any deficiency balance and asserts that cause exists sufficient to wave the requirement of Bankruptcy Rule 4001(a)(3) therefore allowing an Order to be effective upon the Court's signature."
Okay... so is this just procedure? Are they just basically saying they plan to sell the vehicles and make us liable for the amount left and trying to make it nondischargable? we were told we'd be an asset case, but then all this crap happened with the presumption of abuse, so I don't know what is going on now.
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