Have an odd one to run past you guys
I got a call from a client (discharged 2 yrs ago).
We got a reaffirmation offer from his lender and he wanted to sign (it was a pretty good deal for him) so we did.
Sent the signed docs back to the lender (per their request) about 6-8 weeks prior to discharge. The documents they sent us did not have signature from the lender yet. There is a 'received' stamp which shows they got it at least 3 weeks prior (not sure where it was during the in between).
They did not file it w/court until 4 weeks after getting it, 1 week after discharge. But they had it well it advance.
For the last 2 years they have been taking payments but they have not been showing it on his credit report, which is causing issues with him getting a loan for a new vehicle.
Seems to me that 1) they had the signed reaffirmation at least 3 weeks prior (per their own admission) and 2) they've been taking payments for 2 years.
So it's their own fault it didn't get filed on time and they have, in essence, an implied contract by accepting payments for 2 years.
I want them to fix his credit report to show payments in full.
But I've never run across this issue before, the lenders have always filed on time and reported payments on time.
I got a call from a client (discharged 2 yrs ago).
We got a reaffirmation offer from his lender and he wanted to sign (it was a pretty good deal for him) so we did.
Sent the signed docs back to the lender (per their request) about 6-8 weeks prior to discharge. The documents they sent us did not have signature from the lender yet. There is a 'received' stamp which shows they got it at least 3 weeks prior (not sure where it was during the in between).
They did not file it w/court until 4 weeks after getting it, 1 week after discharge. But they had it well it advance.
For the last 2 years they have been taking payments but they have not been showing it on his credit report, which is causing issues with him getting a loan for a new vehicle.
Seems to me that 1) they had the signed reaffirmation at least 3 weeks prior (per their own admission) and 2) they've been taking payments for 2 years.
So it's their own fault it didn't get filed on time and they have, in essence, an implied contract by accepting payments for 2 years.
I want them to fix his credit report to show payments in full.
But I've never run across this issue before, the lenders have always filed on time and reported payments on time.
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