Hi there,
I am trying to interpret the exemption law in CA as the last piece in the puzzle of what I am going to do. I had three questions specifically.
1. Under one option, you can keep 75 percent of wages, under another, wages are not exempt. What if you are reaffirming a mortgage, equity and car loans, are you supposed to forfeit all your wages and then go bad on those loans? I dont get how that is supposed to work under either option, at 75 or 100 percent of losing your wages.
2. I am unclear if the car value exemption applies to all the cars in a family or to one for each spouse. I know the value of one car we have is less than 2000. What if the other car was new, driven off the lot and so technically upside-down, and re-affirmed. I assume that would be zero value, although the car itself would be worth a lot (but owned by the lien holder, right?)
I am upside down in my house, have some exercise equipment, some fairly low value furniture, perhaps some cash (who knows) and will definitely have my regular wages every month including before and after filing. I especially dont get the wage thing: what if you already spent the wages you made 30 days before filing, not to mention my other questions. I am totally confused on this one.
here is the CA law for reference:
thanks,
Mr. Moneypenny
I am trying to interpret the exemption law in CA as the last piece in the puzzle of what I am going to do. I had three questions specifically.
1. Under one option, you can keep 75 percent of wages, under another, wages are not exempt. What if you are reaffirming a mortgage, equity and car loans, are you supposed to forfeit all your wages and then go bad on those loans? I dont get how that is supposed to work under either option, at 75 or 100 percent of losing your wages.
2. I am unclear if the car value exemption applies to all the cars in a family or to one for each spouse. I know the value of one car we have is less than 2000. What if the other car was new, driven off the lot and so technically upside-down, and re-affirmed. I assume that would be zero value, although the car itself would be worth a lot (but owned by the lien holder, right?)
I am upside down in my house, have some exercise equipment, some fairly low value furniture, perhaps some cash (who knows) and will definitely have my regular wages every month including before and after filing. I especially dont get the wage thing: what if you already spent the wages you made 30 days before filing, not to mention my other questions. I am totally confused on this one.
here is the CA law for reference:
thanks,
Mr. Moneypenny
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