Our mortgage is with Bank of America (the recently bought out Countrywide, who was previously our lender, heh, who bought our loan from the ORIGINAL local lender)...
We are also BKing substantial cc debt with BofA.
I called earlier this month to make our mortgage payment (on which we are current). I authorized the payment amt (918.55, specifically). Took down a confirmation number.
I later discovered that the 918.55 had been deducted from my checking account ALONG WITH a separate charge of $31.90, which was NOT authorized.
This is the amount of Countrywide's late fee (BofA's is actually a different amt).
I called BofA to sort it out since we were not behind. The representative told me it was a late fee from November of 2008. I checked my records and no such fee could be found on ANY of my statements.
I acknowledged that it was possible that I did owe that late fee (I had been doing partial payments, bi-weekly, at that time, not knowing that was not acceptable to Countrywide), but it was not shown on any of my statements and why was it only now being asked for...not asked for...taken without authorization.
The fee was waived (credited to my next payment due).
Should I bring this up with my lawyer? Is this a legal thing to do period, much less when a customer is in a bk?
We are also BKing substantial cc debt with BofA.
I called earlier this month to make our mortgage payment (on which we are current). I authorized the payment amt (918.55, specifically). Took down a confirmation number.
I later discovered that the 918.55 had been deducted from my checking account ALONG WITH a separate charge of $31.90, which was NOT authorized.
This is the amount of Countrywide's late fee (BofA's is actually a different amt).
I called BofA to sort it out since we were not behind. The representative told me it was a late fee from November of 2008. I checked my records and no such fee could be found on ANY of my statements.
I acknowledged that it was possible that I did owe that late fee (I had been doing partial payments, bi-weekly, at that time, not knowing that was not acceptable to Countrywide), but it was not shown on any of my statements and why was it only now being asked for...not asked for...taken without authorization.
The fee was waived (credited to my next payment due).
Should I bring this up with my lawyer? Is this a legal thing to do period, much less when a customer is in a bk?
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