I'm married (as of April 08) and have two children. All debt I'm considering filing for was incurred in my own name, almost all before marriage. I am in California.
I was on the phone with an attorney yesterday (whom I'm meeting tomorrow for the initial consult) and he mentioned that I could file as 'family of 3' (me and my 2 children) and use that family of 3 as the means income test.
I was under the impression, I had to include my wife's income, and 'family of 4' for the income requirements.
Is there the option for me to do 'family of 3' and not include anything related to my wife at all?? Basically, I want to know if the lawyer is WRONG so I can make sure not to retain him... because that would be a huge oversight on his part!
I was on the phone with an attorney yesterday (whom I'm meeting tomorrow for the initial consult) and he mentioned that I could file as 'family of 3' (me and my 2 children) and use that family of 3 as the means income test.
I was under the impression, I had to include my wife's income, and 'family of 4' for the income requirements.
Is there the option for me to do 'family of 3' and not include anything related to my wife at all?? Basically, I want to know if the lawyer is WRONG so I can make sure not to retain him... because that would be a huge oversight on his part!
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