Originally posted by albacore44
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I've posted this elsewhere but I'll throw another curve at you. I have a 125% "overequity" 2nd of ~150k. The appraisal they used made about 100k "unsecured" at funding...another words the 2nd knew they were lending approx 2/3 unsecured at closing. Needless to say home values have dropped and the value would not even cover the first.
I don't see why the ~100k of the 2nd shouldn't be stripped in a CH7 as it was knowling lent unsecured at funding...paid off credit cards, etc.
I know true "stripping" of a 2nd can only happen in a Ch13 and if even $1.00 of value remains then the whole mortgage survives. In my case 1.00 would not survive period...that is beside the point.....BUT why shouldn't the "unsecured" portion be stripped? I plan to bring this up to the attorneys I plan to meet this week to see what their take is...
As others have stated the other alternative is to not reaffirm the second and settle with them after a Ch7...I would rather settle 50k than 150k in my case and again the lendor lent "unsecured" for the 100k...it's right in their own closing documents with the appraisal they used.
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