Hi everyone,
Can someone please clarify for me. I called my lawyer's office to clarify a couple items. One of them was verification that if the Bar Claims Date for unsecured claims pass then the creditor is no longer able to submit a claim unless there was a good reason why they didn't (eg. they didn't receive notifcation) - in this case they did. This is a large bank.
What I was told is that the claims bar date is really for the info of the trustee. No matter what the excuse is, the bank can file the unsecured claim late and case law says that the claim will be accepted (even 1 year late). Is that true? I told him based on what I read and understood that wasn't true and that I would ask them to file an objection IF (it hasn't been so far) there was a claim filed. He said he could be wrong, case law may be different but he was sure he was right. Now I'm confused.
Can someone tell me what is correct based on case law. Any info that can be provided woud be appreciated.
Thanks!
Can someone please clarify for me. I called my lawyer's office to clarify a couple items. One of them was verification that if the Bar Claims Date for unsecured claims pass then the creditor is no longer able to submit a claim unless there was a good reason why they didn't (eg. they didn't receive notifcation) - in this case they did. This is a large bank.
What I was told is that the claims bar date is really for the info of the trustee. No matter what the excuse is, the bank can file the unsecured claim late and case law says that the claim will be accepted (even 1 year late). Is that true? I told him based on what I read and understood that wasn't true and that I would ask them to file an objection IF (it hasn't been so far) there was a claim filed. He said he could be wrong, case law may be different but he was sure he was right. Now I'm confused.
Can someone tell me what is correct based on case law. Any info that can be provided woud be appreciated.
Thanks!
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