I went to observe some 341 meetings today and ran into my attorney and was he answering some questions I had. I know I should consider him right but one thing does not make sense to me. He said there are 3 ways income is calculated for a payment plan. The means test, schedule I and a third way but I forgot what the third was, may be something about assets.
He said they take the highest amount after calculating all three. In my case it would be the means test due to overtime late last year. My schedule I should be my current income, I have no overtime in the past 2 months. He said since the means test calculation would be used I may have to wait till July to file, then no overtime will be on the means test.
It just don't seem right or even logical. Should I find another atty?
He said they take the highest amount after calculating all three. In my case it would be the means test due to overtime late last year. My schedule I should be my current income, I have no overtime in the past 2 months. He said since the means test calculation would be used I may have to wait till July to file, then no overtime will be on the means test.
It just don't seem right or even logical. Should I find another atty?
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