Okay - I posted this under my other thread, but guess it should be separate. I'm trying to figure out why our plan (which was confirmed around 21 September or so) says payback is at 100% - however our paperwork says its like 45% of what we owe? Our plan was based upon assets not able to exempt - and we paid for them in the plan (Ch. 7 liquidation value).
We have the following in our plan: legal fees, trustee fees, property taxes, 2 small dr bills we had to include (less than 500 combined - I forgot about those!) and our 2nd mortgage. Our house and car are outside of the plan.
It states on 13data that everything is getting 100% payback, yet the 2nd was stripped (or will be), and trustee has updated it several times since confirmation, although no payments have been made yet due to lawyer just filing his additional fee for the AP ($250). Payments should begin shortly. So as I understand it - our lawyer, property taxes and medical get paid at 100% and the trustee takes his 6.9% - then the rest of the monies left go to the 2nd. The 2nd reads "100%" as well - but they will not get that - guess thats where the 45% comes in?
Can you pay 2 different percentages like that - or is it considered 100% since we're stripping the 2nd and it was approved? Reason I'm asking is because I"m trying to figure out if this is the reason our trustee is not requiring pay raises, tax refunds, etc to be reported and/or taken.
Thanks
We have the following in our plan: legal fees, trustee fees, property taxes, 2 small dr bills we had to include (less than 500 combined - I forgot about those!) and our 2nd mortgage. Our house and car are outside of the plan.
It states on 13data that everything is getting 100% payback, yet the 2nd was stripped (or will be), and trustee has updated it several times since confirmation, although no payments have been made yet due to lawyer just filing his additional fee for the AP ($250). Payments should begin shortly. So as I understand it - our lawyer, property taxes and medical get paid at 100% and the trustee takes his 6.9% - then the rest of the monies left go to the 2nd. The 2nd reads "100%" as well - but they will not get that - guess thats where the 45% comes in?
Can you pay 2 different percentages like that - or is it considered 100% since we're stripping the 2nd and it was approved? Reason I'm asking is because I"m trying to figure out if this is the reason our trustee is not requiring pay raises, tax refunds, etc to be reported and/or taken.
Thanks
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