I am still confused with this issue. I am the only spouse filing, and I reside in the state of Florida. The unsecured debt is mine only. My house is not totally underwater so the second mortgage cannot be stripped--hence that is why I am the only one filing. First, I understand DMI. Currently, the DMI is $200.00per month. The amount of credit card debt is $21K. We have a total $35K in assets, held jointly and considered tenants by the entirety in FL--based on info from my attorney. He also stated that the property does not have to be titled "tenants by the entirety" in FL; that all property held by a married couple meeting 5 criteria is automatically considered "tenants by the entirety." No other assets. Now, it looks like I would be paying
$200/month for five years (60 months). What circumstance would have to exist for me to get a three-year payback period?
Now, looking at the asset side. I understand that creditors are entitled to the same amount that they would get in a ch7 filing. Since my wife is NOT filing, then it seems that the total assets in the bankruptcy estate would equal only half the value of the assets ($35K/2=$17.5K). Now dividing $17.5K over a five-year period (60 months), it seems that my payment would be $292.00/month. It appears that the "asset test" has the higher monthly payment. Obviously, a three-year payback period would be a strain. Is this the payment that I will have to abide by going forward?
Thanks for the clarification.
$200/month for five years (60 months). What circumstance would have to exist for me to get a three-year payback period?
Now, looking at the asset side. I understand that creditors are entitled to the same amount that they would get in a ch7 filing. Since my wife is NOT filing, then it seems that the total assets in the bankruptcy estate would equal only half the value of the assets ($35K/2=$17.5K). Now dividing $17.5K over a five-year period (60 months), it seems that my payment would be $292.00/month. It appears that the "asset test" has the higher monthly payment. Obviously, a three-year payback period would be a strain. Is this the payment that I will have to abide by going forward?
Thanks for the clarification.
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