I don't recall if we have touched on this here, but I seem to recall a post or two where student loans used for tuition or books are considered non-consumer debt for purposes of 707 means test issues (i.e. bypassing the means test).
I know of one case, [I]In re stewart[I] (the specific cite escapes) me that only mentions in "passing" that student loan debt used for tuition and books may be non-consumer debt. (as opposed to student loan debt used for housing and food, etc, would be consumer debt).
Anyone have any cases that support (or go against) that premise.
I know of one case, [I]In re stewart[I] (the specific cite escapes) me that only mentions in "passing" that student loan debt used for tuition and books may be non-consumer debt. (as opposed to student loan debt used for housing and food, etc, would be consumer debt).
Anyone have any cases that support (or go against) that premise.
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