All,
I got an email today from Citi Mortgage about my inquiry into whether or not I could possibly obtain an FHA loan now that I have been discharged 2 1/2 years with no reaffirmation on both mortgages. I was actually told I had a "complex" situation that would need to be handled by someone who is more familiar with past bankruptcies. I could not believe that a lending institution has never come up with this situation....Selling my home I didn't reaffirm and using the proceeds for a large down payment on another home. How complex is that? The person from Citi actually emailed me and asked me if I was for sure 3 years out from my foreclosure. If so, I could proceed with an online application. When I wrote back (and explained for the second time) that I didn't foreclose and that I still lived in the house and just wanted to sell he responded like it was an odd thing. How odd? Can anyone answer here if my situation really is that unique because I don't believe it is. I'm thinking there are plenty of people who have stayed in their homes without reaffirming and later sold the home with a profit. Please respond. Also, once again in my situation is it not possible given my timeline that I could get an FHA now after just 2 1/2 years discharged?
I got an email today from Citi Mortgage about my inquiry into whether or not I could possibly obtain an FHA loan now that I have been discharged 2 1/2 years with no reaffirmation on both mortgages. I was actually told I had a "complex" situation that would need to be handled by someone who is more familiar with past bankruptcies. I could not believe that a lending institution has never come up with this situation....Selling my home I didn't reaffirm and using the proceeds for a large down payment on another home. How complex is that? The person from Citi actually emailed me and asked me if I was for sure 3 years out from my foreclosure. If so, I could proceed with an online application. When I wrote back (and explained for the second time) that I didn't foreclose and that I still lived in the house and just wanted to sell he responded like it was an odd thing. How odd? Can anyone answer here if my situation really is that unique because I don't believe it is. I'm thinking there are plenty of people who have stayed in their homes without reaffirming and later sold the home with a profit. Please respond. Also, once again in my situation is it not possible given my timeline that I could get an FHA now after just 2 1/2 years discharged?