I've been reading posts all morning, trying to wrap my head around this concept of qualifying for a new mortgage after doing a stay-and-pay.
Here's my hypothetical.
Say I want to move to a new house about 2 - 2.5 years after discharge. And say I'm hoping to qualify for an FHA mortgage. I'm doing a stay-and-pay with my current mortgage (underwater by $20K - about $200/mo of a 2nd mortgage) in a property that homeowner's association rules prevent me from renting out. In order to qualify for a new mortgage, I have to have a plan of what I'm going to do with my current mortgage. I'm not "allowed" to buy a new house and bail on the old one, or I won't get approved or will be committing fraud. So... in order to get qualified for a new mortgage, I need to afford mortgages on both properties - old and new. But I need a plan for my old mortgage so lenders don't think I'll buy and bail. Right?
Smart or stupid: Aggressively pay down the $20K 2nd mortgage (I'll actually be able to do that once my other debts are erased), which will bring my mortgage balance about even with, maybe a little less than, current market values. Then list the house for sale (who knows - maybe by then, for a profit, or to make back some of the $20K). Avoid foreclosure and short sale - no negative public records.
I hate to throw away $20K, but we have two young daughters, and we need/want as much stability for them as possible. Rentals around here that would be ideal for a family are going to cost as much as or more than our current mortgage payments, so it doesn't make sense to me to move only to pay the same thing. And I don't want to move to a slum area with my daughters just to save a little money. I know I'm not legally responsible for the mortgages anymore once discharged, but in order to get into stable housing for my kids' futures and schooling years, it seems like the hard way - paying off debt I don't have to pay and then selling the house - might be the best way for our family. Anybody btdt? Sell a house that was IIB (not via short sale)?
Thoughts?
Here's my hypothetical.
Say I want to move to a new house about 2 - 2.5 years after discharge. And say I'm hoping to qualify for an FHA mortgage. I'm doing a stay-and-pay with my current mortgage (underwater by $20K - about $200/mo of a 2nd mortgage) in a property that homeowner's association rules prevent me from renting out. In order to qualify for a new mortgage, I have to have a plan of what I'm going to do with my current mortgage. I'm not "allowed" to buy a new house and bail on the old one, or I won't get approved or will be committing fraud. So... in order to get qualified for a new mortgage, I need to afford mortgages on both properties - old and new. But I need a plan for my old mortgage so lenders don't think I'll buy and bail. Right?
Smart or stupid: Aggressively pay down the $20K 2nd mortgage (I'll actually be able to do that once my other debts are erased), which will bring my mortgage balance about even with, maybe a little less than, current market values. Then list the house for sale (who knows - maybe by then, for a profit, or to make back some of the $20K). Avoid foreclosure and short sale - no negative public records.
I hate to throw away $20K, but we have two young daughters, and we need/want as much stability for them as possible. Rentals around here that would be ideal for a family are going to cost as much as or more than our current mortgage payments, so it doesn't make sense to me to move only to pay the same thing. And I don't want to move to a slum area with my daughters just to save a little money. I know I'm not legally responsible for the mortgages anymore once discharged, but in order to get into stable housing for my kids' futures and schooling years, it seems like the hard way - paying off debt I don't have to pay and then selling the house - might be the best way for our family. Anybody btdt? Sell a house that was IIB (not via short sale)?
Thoughts?
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