from AIF to AIB, but not one from AIB to AIF at all. So this does not explain why payments from the onset of the contract were made to AIB prior to the date of the servicing agreement from AIF to AIB. If AIF was the lienholder from the onset, then no servicing agreement exists to explain AIB receivership of all those payments prior to August, 2003.***

Let me know what you think of my argument so far and if anybody can help me sort out that last bit, I surely would appreciate it. I'm going to take a little bit of a break to try to stop my head from spinning.